beachbunni307
July 10th, 2013, 05:18 PM
Hi Ladies! I have a question. I'm planning to sway girl and have a timing question.
I am using OPK's, temping, and monitoring CM to monitor my cycle and practice/make a plan for my sway. Based on what I have observed for the past 4 months or so, I seem to have abundant EWCM a day or two before ovulation. Easy to collect, test PH (has been in the mid to high 4's most of the time), and that will last for that day. After that, I still have EWCM for a day or two (depending on when I ovulate that month), but it is so sparce that I have to try multiple times to get enough to check the consistency..and forget having enough to test ph. I think my PH goes up to around the mid to higher 5's without me trying to lower it (we're not ttc yet, so I'm not attempting to keep it low right now)....but I never know how accurate that is since I can barely get anything to test....and it stays that way through ovulation.
So, on to my question....(sorry for the essay). I know that O day is "boy territory", but if I barely have any EWCM.....does it really matter, as long as I try to keep my PH down? I was going to attempt an O+12, but I have found it impossible to figure out when the O+12 mark is. To me, my cervix feels the same the whole time and given my lack of EWCM at O time, it's hard to spot an obvious change in CM at the O+12 mark, since I don't always know whether it has changed, or there is just not enough EWCM in there to collect. I am really afraid of trying for O+12 and missing it and not getting pregnant, and getting pregnant quickly is ultimately more important to me than the sex of the baby....so I'm trying to find a happy medium. (*I should probably note here that I suppose it is possible that I am actually ovulating during my abundant EWCM time, but based on my FF charts and the lingering of EWCM for a day or two afterwards, I don't THINK that is the case...but I could be wrong).
We already have a boy who was conceived on our first try....no sway. I think we had sex around ovulation to get him, but I don't know for sure when since I wasn't monitoring my cycle nearly as closely as I am now....and plus my cycle was a little unpredictable the first time around (anywhere between 24 and 32 days). I seem to be much more regular now (26 or 28 days....my body likes even numbers, I guess).
Any insight is appreciated...I'm just really confused.
THANK YOU!!
I am using OPK's, temping, and monitoring CM to monitor my cycle and practice/make a plan for my sway. Based on what I have observed for the past 4 months or so, I seem to have abundant EWCM a day or two before ovulation. Easy to collect, test PH (has been in the mid to high 4's most of the time), and that will last for that day. After that, I still have EWCM for a day or two (depending on when I ovulate that month), but it is so sparce that I have to try multiple times to get enough to check the consistency..and forget having enough to test ph. I think my PH goes up to around the mid to higher 5's without me trying to lower it (we're not ttc yet, so I'm not attempting to keep it low right now)....but I never know how accurate that is since I can barely get anything to test....and it stays that way through ovulation.
So, on to my question....(sorry for the essay). I know that O day is "boy territory", but if I barely have any EWCM.....does it really matter, as long as I try to keep my PH down? I was going to attempt an O+12, but I have found it impossible to figure out when the O+12 mark is. To me, my cervix feels the same the whole time and given my lack of EWCM at O time, it's hard to spot an obvious change in CM at the O+12 mark, since I don't always know whether it has changed, or there is just not enough EWCM in there to collect. I am really afraid of trying for O+12 and missing it and not getting pregnant, and getting pregnant quickly is ultimately more important to me than the sex of the baby....so I'm trying to find a happy medium. (*I should probably note here that I suppose it is possible that I am actually ovulating during my abundant EWCM time, but based on my FF charts and the lingering of EWCM for a day or two afterwards, I don't THINK that is the case...but I could be wrong).
We already have a boy who was conceived on our first try....no sway. I think we had sex around ovulation to get him, but I don't know for sure when since I wasn't monitoring my cycle nearly as closely as I am now....and plus my cycle was a little unpredictable the first time around (anywhere between 24 and 32 days). I seem to be much more regular now (26 or 28 days....my body likes even numbers, I guess).
Any insight is appreciated...I'm just really confused.
THANK YOU!!