Question about frequent release and positive OPK per the chart on this site
Hi, I'm a newbie here and came across this site yesterday. It is a VERY helpful site. Thanks for all the good info. I currently have a 2 year old boy who I love to pieces. However, I am 39 years old and am planning to try for my next child this month. It would be nice to have a boy and a girl. Although, I wouldn't send a boy back if I get preggo with that sex. However, I want to try for a girl so this way I can say at least I tried if I end up with another boy. My husband is 39 as well and has a history of kidney failure but had a transplant in 2005 and his sperm was tested in 2010 b/c we did have fertility problems back then but his sperm count was very good. I was the one with the issue whereas I am a migraine sufferer and was taking Verapamil (beta blocker) as a prevenative for my migraines and low and behold it raised my prolactin levels which kept me from getting pregnant. As soon as I stopped that medication, I took an ovulation test that month and got pregnant right away with my son.
Now, my question is...I read over the different methods to sway for a girl. I'm probably going to surge in 6 or 7 days and ovulate the following day. As a last minute method, what can I use to start trying for my girl? I was thinking the frequent release for DH (which I had him start last night; he doesn't mind...lol). Can someone explain to me what I would have to do being I will be ovulating so soon? According to the chart that is on this site, which I printed out, it looks like most of the pink swayers used a frequent release or abstinence and then did a positive OPK. I'm kind of confused about this method. Does this mean he does frequent release for the following days and I take a ovulation kit and when I find I'm ovulating, I have BD that day? If someone can please explain to me this method or if you think any other methods would be in my favor, I would appreciate it. Also, my husband is on a lot of immunosuppressants such as prednisone (2 mg per day) and a bunch of other meds that are kidney related. Not sure if this stuff would work in my favor or not? Also, he did have a very bad cold this month which gave him a fever last week of about 100 farenheit...he took Ceftin (antibiotic) to treat his cold. If anyone has any info on any of this, I'd appreciate it. I'm currently taking my prenatal vitamins, 1 mcg of folic acid per day and 4,000 units of vitamin d3 as I was diagnosed with severe deficiency in November 2012 but as of January 2013, I was within a normal range.
Appreciate any help anyone can provide. Sorry to sound so naïve..I'm so new to all of this! Thanks again!
ETA: Please correct me if I am wrong but I am under the assumption that the more Frequent releases that get done, the more a sperm count is brought down...and if you abstain for 4 days and then have BD when you surge, the sperm count is much higher. I believe this is what my husband did when I conceived my son...was abstinent for 4 days and then when I got the positive that I was ovulating from the ovulation kit, we BD that night and got preggo. I believe this sways a boy, correct? I just want to be sure I understand everything.