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I'm 41 and have two children. We have been ttc for six months and my cycles are very regular.
I have been taking some clomid every month for swaying purposes. This cycle I took clomid from cd1-3.
On cd4 I had some tests run and my fsh came back at 19.25. Could the clomid have caused this or do you think the number is accurate? I didn't mention taking this to my doctor.
I'm not sure why you would take clomid on days 1-3. It's 5-9 or sometimes 4-8. It may slightly increase FSH but not that much.
We often do clomid challenge tests where they take a FSH reading on day 3, do clomid 5-9 and then FSH on day 10. Both levels should be under 10.
At 41, I would expet them to be higher than 10 but 19 is pretty high.
An AMH test would be more telling. FSH is old-school really.
They did an amh test on me too but the results have not come back yet.
I was taking clomid later in the cycle but was getting concerned about my lining so I cut back my dose and started taking clomid from cd1-3 and femara day 3-7. My thought was a low dose of clomid early wouldn't hurt the lining and femara would help with ovulation.
Are you doing this without doctor supervision? Femara may affect FSH. I'm not sure on that one.
dakota we already discussed this via PM but Clomid should not be taken from days 1-3 anyway. And it should never be taken longer than 6 months.
Some doctors do have people take both Clomid and Femara.Quote:
Originally Posted by dakota5176
Femara should lower FSH but I think things are just fudged up and unreliable because you took Clomid so early and possibly have been on it for longer than 6 months.
Please discuss this with your doctor. We are NOT qualified to provide advice. Clomid is never used over 6 months. It kills your lining and it's not going to work if it doesn't within 6 months.