Lower sperm count favors females.. some rambling
If a man does a long abstinence (favors low sperm count) or frequent bd (favors low sperm count).. does that mean that MORE female sperm are present in that sample? Or it just means it's still 50/50?
Assuming it's still 50/50 - WHY would low sperm count favor females? Do they just like less competition in the big race to the egg?
I'm curious now.. wonder if there are any theories as to why low sperm count favors female conception.
And if that's the case, would it make sense to use only part of DH's sample if you were TBMing?